The Name of the Father

  • Rod Thorn

    Shalom !! I would like to no more about Perfect tense , and imperfect tense in ancient/Biblical Paleo Hebrew . I would also like to know what is the Perfect , Absolute , and most Accurate Paleo Hebrew to English Interpretation/Transliteration of Exodus 3:14 .

    In ancient/Biblical Paleo Hebrew , which is the Perfect tense of the DIVINE NAME , and which is the imperfect tense ????

    • Andrew G Roth

      Shalom Rob—Hebrew uses states of being rather than “tenses” per se but the concept is similar. PERFECT indicates a past action (has happened, is perfected) while IMPERFECT is about the future or a current event going into the future. The issue of verbs is very complex (qal, pael, etc) so for that I suggest getting a good Hebrew grammar. If you go to Amazon, I like Paige Kelley’s “Introduction to Biblical Hebrew”–both the text book and the handbook.

      EHYEH ASHER EHYEH can be translated as either “I am that I am” or “I will be who I will be” and some think even “I was who I was” is permissible, and this is because He is Eternal, and all states of being are in His Name EHYHEH is in “qal imperfect singular” construct, because He always WILL be, and therefore, is in the future/imperfect.

      It is important to also note that EHYEH is FIRST person (what YHWH calls HIMSELF) it is NOT what we are to call Him because they we are saying “I am Yahweh”, so for us we use THIRD person masculine singular (Yah He who is =Yahweh) to designate Him. Hope this helps! Andrew

  • James.Lee

    Peace Mr Roth,
    Recently purchased AENT. Found it to be insightful. Confised about zome words like in Colossians 2:16 “pagan” is that your.interpretation? Honestly, I struggled with the phrase in English “first day of the week” I have difficult time that the word Sabbaton was translated “week” in English from Greek. I lean toward vines definituon “one of sabbaths” or “first of weeks” basically referring to Lev 23:9-14.counting towards Shavout, feast of weeks, or Pentecost.

    Your interpretation of the word virgin in Rev 14 has no real foundation accept it is a traditional interpretation.. I challenge you on this and ask that you examine the word “with” in the sentence 14:4 “These are they who have not defiled themselves with women…” I take this scripture to men that these women are not defiled “for they are virgins” If it was referring to men as young maidens or undefiled maybe the word would be Eunuch. Men referred to as maidens? There is nowhere in scripture where men are referred to as virgins or maidens. In the Greek 14:3 says no man can learn this song Strongs 3762 if it was saying no woman it would be 3760. Your text and some other English translation say “no one was able to learn that song…” Your interpretation comes off as factual. Take it easy bro. More will be revealed. Appreciate your love for the word. See you in the Kingdom. Yah willing